Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Sở GD&ĐT Nam Định năm 2024-2025

Với đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Sở GD&ĐT Nam Định năm 2024-2025 có đáp án sẽ giúp học sinh lớp 10 ôn tập và đạt điểm cao trong bài thi Tiếng Anh 10.

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Sở GD&ĐT Nam Định năm 2024-2025

Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Global Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 iLearn Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Friends Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Bright Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Discovery

Chỉ từ 150k mua trọn bộ Đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Cuối kì 1 Global Success, iLearn Smart World, Friends Global, Bright, English Discovery theo cấu trúc mới bản word có lời giải chi tiết:

• B1: gửi phí vào tk: 1133836868 - CT TNHH DAU TU VA DV GD VIETJACK - Ngân hàng MB (QR)
• B2: Nhắn tin tới Zalo VietJack Official - nhấn vào đây để thông báo và nhận đề thi

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ Ⅰ NĂM HỌC: 2024 – 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề (Đề thi gồm 04 trang)

A. LISTENING (1.5 points)

Part I. Questions 1-3. You will hear a talk about a charity organization. Listen and write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. Number (0) has been done as an example. (0.75 point)

Original Oxfam

• Started in (0) __ 1942__ in Oxford, UK.

• Aimed to deliver (1) ___________ supplies to Greek people.

• Helped victims of an earthquake in 1951.

• Changed to Oxfam in 1965

Oxfam International (1995): At present

• Has projects in over (2) ____________ countries.

• Teaches people to grow (3) ____________ and build wells.

Part II. Questions 4-6. 

You will hear an interview with Sara about doing volunteer work. Listen and circle the best answer for each question below. (0.75 point)

Question 4. How did Sara start volunteering?

 A. Finding hospitals and orphanages.

B. Using maps and emailing.

C. Applying to hospitals.

Question 5. What is Sara’s dream job ?

A. A nurse

B. A doctor

C. A volunteer

Question 6. What is one of Sara’s tasks?

A. Helping with forms.

B. Cooking food.

C. Taking food orders.

B. READING AND LANGUAGE FOCUS (7.5 points)

Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (2.5 points)

Question 1. Thanks to the Internet and social media, we can communicate _______ each other easily.

A. to

B. at

C. with

D. in

Question 2. You have donated some books to flooded areas, ______ you?

A. haven't

B. have

C. aren’t

D. don’t

Question 3. I really like ______. It helps me to stay healthy, and it doesn’t cost much. All you need is comfortable shoes.

A. singing karaoke

B. riding a bike

C. canoeing

D. running

Question 4. I tried my best in the final test, ______ the result was not as good as I expected.

A. but

B. so

C. for

D. and Question

5. Her live concert ______ until next Sunday because of the bad weather.

A. will be delayed

B. will delay

C. is delayed

D. delays

Question 6. Many people think that Michael Faraday is one of the greatest ______ in history.

A. inventions

B. invented

C. inventive

D. inventors

Question 7. My friend’s sister would like ______ yoga at school because she wants to keep fit.

A. practise

B. to practise

C. practised

D. practising

Question 8. My friends ______ for information on the Internet when the teacher came in.

A. are searching

B. were searching

C. have searched

D. searched

Question 9. Using plastic bags has a negative _______ on the environment.

A. impact

B. practice

C. sollution

D. benefit

Question 10. If you can do something to help others, you will find your life ______.

A. meaningful

B. meaningless

C. helpless

D. interested

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point)

Clonter Opera Theatre

          Opera is a famous type of classical performance, and I was excited to attend one at the Clonter Opera Theatre in Cheshire, UK. I expected to see a full opera, but in fact, it was (11) _______ opera gala. This special show includes (12) _______ famous songs from different operas performed by various singers. It was perfect for me, as I didn’t know much about opera and wanted to learn more.

          The stage was beautiful, with stunning scenery. The songs were cheerful and energetic, and some were familiar to me. Each singer gave a fantastic (13) _______, and the stories in the songs were easy to follow. Although some stories were sad, the show ended with lively songs (14) _______ made everyone happy. If you visit Congleton, don’t miss the chance to enjoy an opera gala at Clonter Opera Theatre!

(Adapted from Tieng Anh 10 Bright)

Question 11.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. ø

Question 12.

A. much

B. any

C. some

D. little

Question 13.

A. expression

B. development

C. demonstration

D. performance

Question 14.

A. that

B. who

C. when

D. what

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct phrase or clause that best fits each of the numbered blanks. (1.0 point)

The Best 20th-Century Invention

          The mobile phone is one of the most important inventions of the 20th century. It was invented in the 1970s. At first, mobile phones were big and (15) _______. Now those phones are in museums! Things have changed a lot for the past decades! (16) _______ are small and very smart. They work like mini computers. People can use them to send messages, (17) _______, play games, and much more. Some phones are very expensive, but there are also cheaper ones that almost everyone can afford. Because of this, mobile phones are everywhere now. In my opinion, this is why the mobile phone is the best invention of the 20th century. (18) _______ because it has transformed how we connect with each other.

Question 15.

A. were only used for making calls

B. only are used to call other people

C. only is used for calling people

D. was only used to calling people

Question 16.

A. Mobile modern phones

B. Mobile phones modern

C. Modern phones mobile

D. Modern mobile phones

Question 17.

A. take pictures

B. taking pictures

C. to taking photos

D. taken photos.

Question 18.

A. It has changed our lives and way        

B. We have lived and changed the way

C. It has changed the way we live

D. We have changed and lived with it

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make  meaningful exchanges or texts in each of the following sentences. (1.0 point)

Question 19.

a. Jack: We have dinner together and watch movies on weekends. What about you?

b. Anna: We enjoy cooking meals together, especially on Sundays.

c. Anna: Hi, Jack! How do you spend time with your family?

A. c-b-a

B. a-b-c

C. b-a-c

D. c-a-b

(Adapted from Tieng Anh 10 C21-Smart)

Question 20.

a. Liam: I’m crazy about rock. Do you play any instruments?

b. Mia: I love pop! How about you?

c. Liam: Hey, Mia! What’s your favorite type of music?

d. Mia: Yes, I’m learning the guitar. It’s fun!

A. c-a-b-d

B. c-b-a-d

C. a-d-c-b

D. b-a-c-d

(Adapted from Tieng Anh 10 THiNK)

Question 21.

Dear Sir or Madam,

a. I am available for an interview after school or on weekends and can start next month.

b. I am applying for the volunteer teacher position at Happy Mind Charity Centre, as advertised in the Youth Newspaper on February 22nd.

c. I am also patient, creative, and love working with children.`

d. I have experience teaching primary students and improving their schoolwork. 

Yours faithfully,

A. a-b-c-d

B. b-a-c-d

C. c-a-b-d

D. b-d-c-a

 (Adapted from Tieng Anh 10 Pearson)

Question 22.

a. First, a pair of earbuds is small and light, so it is portable.

b. There are many benefits of using earbuds.

c. Second, earbuds are not costly. They are not as expensive as a set of speakers.

d. Finally, you can use earbuds to listen to music or your listening lessons anywhere, even in public places.

e. To sum up, earbuds are very beneficial for the users.

A. a-c-d-b-e

B. b-a-c-d-e

C. b-a-d-c-e

D. a-c-d-e-b

(Adapted from Tieng Anh 10 Pearson)

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (2.0 points)

          The most obvious advantage of living green is that it helps reduce environmental pollution. This is achieved by practising the 3Rs: Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle. The first R involves carefully choosing products to minimize waste, such as items with minimal packaging. It also includes buying only what is necessary to avoid overconsumption. Reusing means repeatedly using items instead of discarding them, like donating old clothes, which helps reduce the amount of waste sent to landfills. Recycling focuses on separating materials like paper, metal, and plastic to be processed and used for new purposes, reducing waste and conserving natural resources. This not only protects the environment but also helps save energy used in the production of new materials.

          Living green also brings economic benefits. Reducing energy and water consumption helps lower household bills, for instance, by using energy-efficient appliances or water-saving techniques. Reusing and recycling materials save money by decreasing production costs, as making new products is both wasteful and expensive. Moreover, recycled products are often more durable than new ones, providing a cost-effective and eco-friendly option.

          Lastly, going green improves health. By reducing air pollution, it makes the air cleaner and healthier, leading to fewer respiratory illnesses and medical visits. Choosing organic foods and green household products also eliminates harmful chemicals that could lead to health problems. Additionally, supporting environmentally friendly farming and production methods contributes to a safer planet and a healthier future for everyone.

(Adapted from Friends Global)

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of living green mentioned in the text?

 A. Saving money

B. Cleaner air

C. Better health

D. Faster production

Question 24. The word minimal in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.

A. big

B. small

C. simple

D. little

Question 25. The word them in paragraph 1 refers to _______.

A. jars

B. items

C. clothes

D. materials

Question 26. The word decreasing in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.

A. increasing

B. reducing

C. improving

D. wasting

Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. Finally, living green causes health problems.

B. Finally, going green makes your health better.

C. Finally, green living leads to a cleaner environment.

D. Finally, going green makes people live longer.

Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Recycled products are often less durable than new ones.

B. Living green only benefits the environment, not people’s health.

C. Using green products eliminates exposure to harmful chemicals.

D. Donating clothes can help reduce air pollution directly.

Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention saving money through reducing energy and water consumption?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 3

D. None of the above

Question 30. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Living green saves money and benefits health but has no environmental impact.

B. Practising the 3Rs is the most effective way to save energy and improve health.

C. Living green helps reduce pollution, saves money, and promotes better health.

D. Recycling and reusing are more important than reducing energy consumption.

C. WRITING (1.0 point)

Write a paragraph (100-120 words) about the things members of your family do together to build closer relationships.

You may use the following suggestions:

- clean the house

- visit grandparents

- do community service

- watch films or game shows

- take part in outdoor activities

Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Global Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 iLearn Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Friends Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Bright Xem thử Đề HK1 Anh 10 Discovery

Xem thêm đề thi Tiếng Anh 10 Học kì 1 các trường trên cả nước hay khác:

• Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 trường THPT Thường Tín (Hà Nội) năm 2024-2025

• Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 trường THPT Gia Định (TP.HCM) năm 2023-2024

• Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 trường THPT Hương Sơn (Hà Tĩnh) năm 2023-2024

• Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 trường THPT Thanh Bình (Hải Dương) năm 2023-2024

Để học tốt lớp 10 các môn học sách mới:

• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Kết nối tri thức
• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Chân trời sáng tạo
• Giải bài tập Lớp 10 Cánh diều

---